evilfusion Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 It was a duel where both players started with 500,000 LP. And I won by zero-ing his LP on my second turn (and banished his Stardust/Assault Mode, for further injury). That's why it's hilariously epic. And even if he survived by a small amount of LP (about 2000 total), he'd have no chance of winning that game against 2 monsters with almost 250,000 ATK and an opponent with half a million Life Points. The OCG is pretty simple. Trigger : Cost/targeting ; Resolution. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 Oh, I see, and I'll remember the ocg thing, when making new cards......Lets say it don't have a cost, does it just then skip to targeting? It sounds kind of funny of a duel..... But anyhow, thank you for your help, I appreciate it....Liked for both of you... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 If it doesn't have a cost, you don't include anything about a cost. Example: "Once per turn: Discard 1 card and target 1 card on your opponent's Field; destroy the target." The effect can be used once per turn. You discard as a cost and target. When the effect resolves, the targeted card is destroyed. If there's no cost, you'd just say "Once per turn: Target 1 card your opponent controls; destroy the target." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CDDRodrigo Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 A change is never easy to get used to very early. But after you get the hang of it, it becomes really simpler. The OCG change was good and made cards easier to understand, not to mention it cleared out lots of otherwise important, but now obvious questions. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 Cost vs Effect and whether the effect targets are major boosts to effect comprehension. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 @Evil Fusion: Thank you, I get it now....@Mu-12: Well, actually, I think I kind of like the new OCG, it helped me out ton by understanding effects and stuff....Its just hard for me to remember differences..... Okay, so istead of a semi colon, it would be a comma in this situation? Quick Play Spell Card:Discard 1 card; Banish 1 "Titan" monster you control. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ieyasu Tokugawa Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 No because it has a cost .-. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 Semi-colons are used after costs, targeting, or other things you do before resolving an effect. Comma is if it doesn't start a chain, or if it's part of the resolution. With your current example, it says discarding is a cost, and the effect is to banish a "Titan". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Synchronized Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 Can a player activate W. Nebula Meteorite if they don't control any monsters? And if so, do they still get the Special Summon from the Deck? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CDDRodrigo Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 Can a player activate W. Nebula Meteorite if they don't control any monsters? And if so, do they still get the Special Summon from the Deck? No, because you must be able to perform a card's effect to activate it. Since setting the monsters is not a cost, but an effect, you cannot activate. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 @Evil Fusion & Ieyasu Tokugawa: Ah, thats where I go wrong, thank you very much....I really do appreciate it, so not only can I make my cards better, i can still fully understand card effecs better.... Thank you both for your very kind help, I appreciate it...... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Synchronized Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 No, because you must be able to perform a card's effect to activate it. Since setting the monsters is not a cost, but an effect, you cannot activate. Oh wow. That would've come in handy a day or two ago. -_-; Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Expelsword Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 How does the hand size limit work?Do you discard at the end of the End Phase?At the beginning?Whenever you want?Do you only discard once? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 How does the hand size limit work?Do you discard at the end of the End Phase?At the beginning?Whenever you want?Do you only discard once? You discard before passing the turn to the opponent. You would do it last, after any "until the End Phase" or "during the End Phase" effects resolve. You must discard again if your hand goes above the limit before the opponent's turn officially begins. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Expelsword Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 Even if they use Super Rejuvenation, etc.? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 22, 2012 Report Share Posted February 22, 2012 You wouldn't discard from your hand until you've already finished resolving Super Rejuvenation. Discarding for the hand limit is THE last thing you do for the turn, with the exception of Grimoire of Dark World (which applies when you discard for your hand size limit), or any Trigger Effects that occur due to discarding for your hand limit. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 Okay, another question: If enervating mist was played first then infinite cards, would my opponents hand size then be 5 or infinite cards size or do I need to play infinite cards 1st then enervating mist? http://yugioh.wikia.com/wiki/Enervating_Misthttp://yugioh.wikia.com/wiki/Infinite_Cards Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CDDRodrigo Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 ...I guess Enervating Mist overrides Infinite Cards o.O Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 @Mu-12: Its kind of Funny b/c in similiar situations, it'd be depending on how they are played.....But thanks.....No I can p*ss other players off....+ getting 2 of each of those cards in RL was a ttal Beezwax... ;) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ieyasu Tokugawa Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 The way I see it, the last one on the field overrides the other. So if you were to resolve Mist first, then use Infinite, the hand size would be infinite for both players. If you were to use Infinite cards, then later activate Mist (not chaining to infinite), you would have no hand size and your opponent's would be 5. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 Whichever card was resolved last wins. If Mist is active, and then Infinite Cards is played, the hand limit is removed. If Infinite Cards is active, and Mist is used, the hand limit is 5. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 @Evilfusion: Yea, I just saw by Konami on wiki....... So, lets say the latter , where I play Infinite cards, then Enervating Mist, would I still be able to keep using infinite cards effect as enervating mist effects only your opponent? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
evilfusion Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 Yes. It's not that Infinite Cards is negated, it's that the effect on your opponent is replaced by a different effect (hand limit = 5) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Master White Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 @Evil Fusion: Thank you, thats what I needed know and to make sure it was so when dueling, it wouldn't be accidenal flop.....Because in this case, if I played it backwards, then I'd overide enervating mist.......Okay, so note that I play infinite, then enervating mist.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Expelsword Posted February 23, 2012 Report Share Posted February 23, 2012 If Quasar negates Battle Fader, can you use another Fader on the same attack? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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